Anyone else see the inconsistency?

[Boreas]

Originally Posted by ebacon

The ADA applies because the complainant asserted it. See the OP.

And please don't write to me with that ridiculous tit-for-tat style that amateurs use all over teh internet. It's disrespectful but worse than that it enforces incoherent thinking.

Okay, thanks for redirecting my attention to the OP. My layman's brain tells me that the Supremacy Clause would operate more strongly with regard to the ADA and the Civil Rights Act than with regard to the First Amendment. "Free exercise" of religion doesn't afford the right to discriminate against others on the basis of that religion or religious dogma. The EEOC seems to feel the same.

As to the organization of my earlier reply, for it to have been disrespectful would require that I intended as much when I wrote it. I did not. That you dislike it or can't follow it is another matter and I'll try to bear that in mind for the future.

John