Abortion; Is this true?

[BlueStreak]

I just heard that the GOP has successfully changed the definition of "rape" so that only women who can prove they were the victim of violent rape, which would NOT include statutory, "date" rape, or rape committed while the victim is drunk or drugged can receive a federally funded abortion. That she must basically show that she was beaten, or overpowered and physically forced into sex against her will.

Now, before your head explodes, I have never approved of "abortions of convenience". An adult woman who simply goes out and gets pregnant, willingly having concentual sex, then decides, "Ooops, I just don't want this right now.", and has an abortion makes me sick. Sorry, but it does.

But, if she's deliberately drugged and raped while she's unconscious?

If she's like, twelve?

Even if she goes out partying and some sicko finds her passed out and humps on her while she's incapacitated......I just don't know if I'd pressure her to have that baby.

I'm pretty sure that this measure is designed as part of the greater plan to whittle down PPACA. But as a stand alone issue, I think it is a bit too narrow and dangerous to the legal rights of women to define "rape" only as "sex by force".

Dave